Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 02.07.2025 06:57

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

Why are so many US conservatives in this day and age still against racial mixing? They won't say it in public, but they are still against the mixing between Blacks and whites? Why?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Ea autem sint vel distinctio id iste ut.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What happens if a parent refuses to let their child be transgender? What happens if the parent tries their hardest not to allow their child to be trans, like flushing every bottle of their trans child's HRT down the toilet?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

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